Here‘s some background for this post. In a nutshell, Paul wrote the book of Romans (including Romans 13) around 57 A.D. The persecution under Nero did not begin until the mid-60′s A.D. Prior to this persecution, the bulk of the violence against Christians was perpetuated by Jews. In fact, Christians often sought refuge from the Jews by appealing to the Romans (see the book of Acts).
Here’s the question:
If the above information is true, how should it affect the way that we interpret and apply Romans 13? Specifically, does Romans 13 require the full obedience of Christians to civil authorities that are “a terror to good conduct” (13:3)? And if not, what circumstances would warrant resistance to the authorities?
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